*14:3 Prophecy is not only for foretelling the future, but all true prophecy comes directly from God. Many churches today give ‘prophesy/prophecy’ an unbiblical meaning, wherein the people tell each other all the good things they hope will happen to them. That is just wishful thinking, not true prophecy.
†14:5 The verb here is ambiguous as to mode; it could be either Indicative or Subjunctive. Since Paul has already stated that not everyone receives ‘languages’, and that the Holy Spirit distributes as He chooses, the Subjunctive is the correct choice.
‡14:5 For someone to argue that he is being humble in seeking and using the lesser gift will not pass muster, because in 12:31 we are commanded to seek the best gifts.
§14:5 According to verse 27 below, only one interpreter should perform his function during a given meeting. So if someone says he is going to interpret his own language, he must have the genuine gift and be able to interpret any other languages. (I have witnessed no end of people faking a language and then faking its interpretation.)
*14:13 I do not understand this, since someone with the gift of interpretation does not need to ask. If no interpreter is present, perhaps the speaker could ask God to give him the interpretation.
†14:18 Since Paul obviously would not use a ‘language’ in public, he made heavy use of them when alone with God. People who follow Paul's example have told me that it recharges their spiritual ‘battery’ in short order. No wonder Paul did it!
‡14:21 See Isaiah 28:11-12 and Deuteronomy 28:49.
§14:22 Like on the day of Pentecost, to be a ‘sign’ a ‘language’ would have to be one that the unbeliever knew, but that the speaker would have no way of knowing. If the unbeliever thinks you are raving (verse 23), where is the ‘sign’? To argue that ‘tongues’ is the sign that you have been ‘baptized in the Spirit’ does not follow from this verse, since that would be for believers.
*14:22 The term here can mean either ‘prophecy’ or ‘prophesying’; the context calls for the second option. God normally speaks through believers, not unbelievers.
†14:26 Can it be that there was a little competition going on?
‡14:27 Since someone with the gift of interpreting can interpret any and all such utterances, there should be only one interpreter at work during a particular session.
§14:29 Prophecy must always be evaluated.
*14:32 A prophet cannot control what messages he receives from God, but he can control when and how he delivers them (and may even decide not to).
†14:34 The eclectic Greek text currently in vogue omits ‘your’ (following some 3% of the Greek manuscripts), which allows the translation ‘women’ rather than ‘wives’, as in NIV, NASB, LB, TEV, etc. Since ‘wives’ excludes single women, the difference is significant.
‡14:35 The crucial factor here is authority, and the underlying need is to protect the structure of the home, the foundational unit of society, including the church. If a woman teaches her husband in church, crossing the street to their house will not make her want to submit to him; the human being just does not work that way. That is why the Text does not allow for female pastors or teachers, since to teach is to exercise authority. But here in verses 34 and 35 Paul goes even further; to protect the husbands' authority, wives should not publicly request an explanation from pastor or teacher, since that could allow a wife to play the teacher against her husband in the home. If a wife requests an explanation from her husband, and he does not know the answer, he can consult the pastor and then transmit the explanation—this preserves the authority structure in the home (which goes back to Genesis 3:16).
§14:36 Either of these situations would constitute a special privilege, which could give rise to a little spiritual pride.
*14:37 Was Paul on an ego trip, or was he aware that he was writing under inspiration? Since he says something similar in a number of his letters, it is clear that he believed he was writing Scripture.
†14:38 I do not understand this. If the definition of “ignorant” here is one who does not do the acknowledging required in verse 37, then Paul may be saying that such a person is not worth arguing with.
‡14:39 Here is the inspired conclusion to the extended discussion of the charismatic gifts. Isn't it strange that most churches disobey this verse, in one way or another? ‘Traditional’ churches tend to forbid not only tongues but also prophecy (to ‘seek’ it is totally out of the question). ‘Pentecostal’ churches generally elevate tongues above prophecy, which is plainly contrary to the Text.